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Does Sodom's judgment (Jude 7) serve as an example of 'annihilation'?

Does Sodom's judgment (Jude 7) serve as an example of 'annihilation'? Jude 7 might suggest the physical death of the ungodly at the final judgment. But does it prove the doctrine of annihilation?

Link to Mounce blog on participles, tense, and time:

Bill Mounce is the author of "Basics of Biblical Greek."

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